MCI transplant
Veteran
- Jun 4, 2003
- 5,311
- 584
- Banned
- #31
Whitch brings me back to my original question.------- Would the "NewCo." be legally obligated to pay him that amount? And would his severance contract, which he signed with "AMR", still be binding with the "NewCo"?-------- It's one thing if the judge says the new board "would be free to do so," and quit another, that they are "legally obligated" to do so!Is the contract violating the intent or the letter of the law? The intent of the law was to avoid someone going into bankruptcy, emerging, and getting a windfall by staying around.
It's a little less clear that it was intended to also cover a merger or hostile takeover.
If you read the Judge's written ruling, the only violation of the law would be if he were paid by AMR.
He was never going to be paid by AMR. He will be paid by NewCo. And the judge says that the company would be free to do so, subject to approval by the new board.