🌟 Exclusive Amazon Black Friday Deals 2024 🌟

Don’t miss out on the best deals of the season! Shop now 🎁

US IAM Fleet Service topic 5/14-

Status
Not open for further replies.
Could someone tell me the article(page) in contract that covers the following. If a OT grievance is worked on first day off and overtime is awarded on your second day off, is the second day at double time rates?
Rufus, you might want to go to art 6 paragraph N , page 29 and then look at page 30, paragraph Q sect 2. This should answer your questions, if I understand correctly what your looking for. That page 30 tells you the only things that are included with getting your 40 hrs in to qualify for double time, and page 29 explains when you can work a by-pass, and at what rate of pay. Hope this helps.
 
Rufus, you might want to go to art 6 paragraph N , page 29 and then look at page 30, paragraph Q sect 2. This should answer your questions, if I understand correctly what your looking for. That page 30 tells you the only things that are included with getting your 40 hrs in to qualify for double time, and page 29 explains when you can work a by-pass, and at what rate of pay. Hope this helps.
Thanks for reply Charlie Brown. I've read the pages and maybe I'm interpreting wrong, but if I've worked my normal forty (40) hour work week then work a grievance on my first scheduled day off which is more than 4 hours would not that qualify me for double time on my second day off? I'm still working overtime that the company failed to issue me properly in the first place. Isn't this penalizing the individual by taking his chances of working his two days off?
 
Hey rufus. Your da&&N right about that.
if your working a by-pass that shift NOW becomes part of your SCHEDULED shift. Meaning if you bang in
you get an OCCURANCE . if you get hurt while working the shift you qualify for WORKERS COMP. so
if your working and getting the applicable rate of time and a half. you are NOW eligible for DOUBLETIME
the 2nd day. Seems pretty elementary . Might want to get a shop steward to grieve that to.
 
Absolutely Not, the job (created) needs to be posted and bid by seniority for those interested in it.
 
Where in our contract does it say we are trainers? The only place I see only pertains to LEADS. IMO, if you're not a Lead the answer is no; they can't even ask. If you are a Lead, then yes you can, and yes they can force it.
 
Where in our contract does it say we are trainers? The only place I see only pertains to LEADS. IMO, if you're not a Lead the answer is no; they can't even ask. If you are a Lead, then yes you can, and yes they can force it.

Good point... I suppose it depends on your definition of TRAINER. CLT for instance uses a training department for familiarization and introduction for Fleet Service. The remainder, is what I think you are addressing... "Agent to Agent on the job".

Again... ambiguity in our contract will have to be more specific in this area in future negotiations. Remember to voice your opinion when the "wish list" comes around!
 
I don't see any ambiguity.

Article 4D5
Instructing and training other employees where so directed.

Pretty clear to me. Also mnote that there is nothing even remotly comparable in any section other then LEADS.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top