NYer
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- Jun 4, 2010
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- #451
It's not different. The first set of distributions, the amount set aside was equal to 5%. Since the reserve was raised to 14% it meant the initial amount set aside was not enough and therefore the difference of what was set aside and what needed to be set aside was done by taking the necessary amount to ensure 14% of the total was taken from the final distribution.AANOTOK said:You stated "the original 5% was to be taken from the total which meant a cut from each distribution. According to court documents the other 5% plus 4% were to be taken from the final distribution".
Then you said this "According to the wording in the Court Order, it seems there was enough value taken from the final distribution as to satisfy 14% of the total amount of shares distributed.
Maybe interpretation is wrong, but seems to me you are saying they took the total 14% from the final distribution. Otherwise, why would the comment even be necessary. We knew after 120 the 14% would be completely satisfied.
It's supposed to be 14% of the total, not 14% of the final distribution.