pjirish317
Veteran
- Sep 21, 2007
- 1,240
- 743
OK, let me preface this with that this is not meant to arise anger in anybody, or cause a rift between East and West. I want to get opinions on Profit Sharing. Why, if the West employees are not covered by the East's CBA, then why are they getting part of the East's profit sharing. I believe that their CBA does not have profit sharing language in it, so please correct me if I am wrong. I do not understand this. If the West can't even run or vote for local offices within the I'll Ask Management then why are they entitled to part of the East's CBA, the Part about Profit Sharing? That is the only part that the I'll Ask Management saw fit to let the West have. IMO if the West can't run for office or vote for officers then they should not be eligable for Profit Sharing as stated in the East's CBA as they are not covered by the East's CBA. JMHO.