Cosmo
Veteran
- Aug 20, 2002
- 840
- 0
OK, maybe this was the part of the codeshare equation that I was missing. So let's see if I've finally got the right idea.
Are you saying that if a PVD passenger (just to pick one US nonstop market into DCA) flies on a US PVD-DCA flight with a UA ticket and then connects to UA's proposed DCA-LAX flight, then UA keeps all of the revenue and US gets nothing? Would the reverse also be true -- i.e., the passenger flies on a US ticket from PVD to DCA and then on another US ticket from DCA to LAX on UA's flight, then US keeps all of the revenue and UA gets nothing? Are there any offsetting fees (on a per-passenger or per-RPM basis, for example) that the ticketing carrier would pay to the operating carrier in either situation?
If I understand the above correctly, DCA in effect becomes a hub (focus city?) for UA with regard to the LAX market. And it would appear to do the same for US. But wouldn't the benefit to UA from any behind-DCA to LAX passengers on its nonstop flights be related to the extent to which those passengers are ticketed on UA all the way to LAX rather than on US?
Sorry to keep going back and forth with you on this, flyer, but I'm just trying to get a better understanding of how US' flights into DCA would help UA's proposed DCA-LAX flight. I appreciate your time (and patience
Are you saying that if a PVD passenger (just to pick one US nonstop market into DCA) flies on a US PVD-DCA flight with a UA ticket and then connects to UA's proposed DCA-LAX flight, then UA keeps all of the revenue and US gets nothing? Would the reverse also be true -- i.e., the passenger flies on a US ticket from PVD to DCA and then on another US ticket from DCA to LAX on UA's flight, then US keeps all of the revenue and UA gets nothing? Are there any offsetting fees (on a per-passenger or per-RPM basis, for example) that the ticketing carrier would pay to the operating carrier in either situation?
If I understand the above correctly, DCA in effect becomes a hub (focus city?) for UA with regard to the LAX market. And it would appear to do the same for US. But wouldn't the benefit to UA from any behind-DCA to LAX passengers on its nonstop flights be related to the extent to which those passengers are ticketed on UA all the way to LAX rather than on US?
Sorry to keep going back and forth with you on this, flyer, but I'm just trying to get a better understanding of how US' flights into DCA would help UA's proposed DCA-LAX flight. I appreciate your time (and patience